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ASTB-E · knowledge subtests

ASTB-E practice test across MST, RCT, MCT and ANIT

Updated Nov 6, 2026facts checked Nov 6, 2026

This set covers the four ASTB-E subtests that are knowledge questions with one keyed answer. Pick a subtest or take the lot; every choice opens its reasoning once you answer.

50 ASTB-E questions by subtest

0 of 50 answeredPick a letter: the reasoning for every choice opens under it.
Q1 of 50 · Aviation and Nautical Information Test (ANIT)

A ship rocking from side to side about its fore-and-aft axis is ____.

  1. Pitching is bow-up, bow-down motion about the side-to-side (lateral) axis.
  2. Yawing is the bow swinging left and right about the vertical axis.
  3. Heaving is the whole ship rising and falling straight up and down, with no rotation.
  4. Rolling is the side-to-side motion about the fore-and-aft (longitudinal) axis.

ID 813287Report a problem

Q2 of 50 · Aviation and Nautical Information Test (ANIT)

Something lying across a ship from side to side is said to lie ____.

  1. Amidships names a location, the middle of the ship, not a crosswise direction.
  2. Fore and aft is the opposite direction: lengthwise, bow to stern.
  3. Athwartships means across the ship, from one side to the other.
  4. Abaft means behind or toward the stern relative to something.

ID 813290Report a problem

Q3 of 50 · Aviation and Nautical Information Test (ANIT)

The backbone of a ship, running along the bottom centerline from bow to stern, is the ____.

  1. The stem is the forward-most upright part of the bow, where the keel ends.
  2. A bulkhead is an upright wall dividing the hull into compartments.
  3. The keel runs along the bottom centerline from bow to stern; frames rise from it like ribs.
  4. The bilge is the lowest inner space of the hull where water collects.

ID 813293Report a problem

Q4 of 50 · Aviation and Nautical Information Test (ANIT)

Spring tides, which have the greatest tidal range, occur ____.

  1. Sun and Moon line up at new and full moon, so their tidal pulls add and the range is greatest.
  2. At quarter moons the pulls are at right angles, which gives the smallest range: neap tides.
  3. Equinoxes can make spring tides a little larger, but spring tides happen twice every lunar month.
  4. The name comes from the water "springing up," not from the season.

ID 813550Report a problem

Q5 of 50 · Aviation and Nautical Information Test (ANIT)

Which of these is a recognized distress signal at sea?

  1. Flag Alpha means "diver down, keep clear"; the distress flags are N over C.
  2. A rocket parachute flare showing a red light is one of the distress signals listed in the Rules (Annex IV).
  3. The listed distress signal is red stars fired one at a time; green stars are not a distress signal.
  4. One prolonged blast is a routine signal, such as leaving a berth or nearing a bend; distress is a continuous sounding.

ID 813728Report a problem

Q6 of 50 · Aviation and Nautical Information Test (ANIT)

Two power-driven vessels are crossing. The vessel that has the other on her own starboard side must ____.

  1. In a crossing situation the vessel that has the other on her own starboard side is the give-way vessel (Rule 15).
  2. The give-way vessel should avoid crossing ahead and normally turns to starboard; a turn to port can cut across the other's bow.
  3. Holding course and speed is the duty of the stand-on vessel, the one that sees the other on her port side.
  4. Five short blasts is the doubt or danger signal, not the crossing rule itself.

ID 813277Report a problem

Q7 of 50 · Math Skills Test (MST)

If 3 identical aircraft engines cost $75,000 in total, what do 5 of these engines cost?

  1. $45,000 sets up the ratio upside down, 3/5 of $75,000.
  2. One engine costs $75,000 ÷ 3 = $25,000, so 5 engines cost 5 × $25,000 = $125,000.
  3. $375,000 treats $75,000 as the price of one engine (5 × $75,000).
  4. $225,000 multiplies $75,000 by 3 instead of dividing by 3.

ID 813124Report a problem

Q8 of 50 · Math Skills Test (MST)

Five less than twice a number is 17. What is the number?

  1. "Five less than twice a number" is 2n − 5, so 2n − 5 = 17, 2n = 22 and n = 11.
  2. −6 writes the phrase backward as 5 − 2n = 17.
  3. 8.5 drops the "five less" and solves 2n = 17.
  4. 6 subtracts 5 from 17 instead of adding it (2n = 12).

ID 857536Report a problem

Q9 of 50 · Math Skills Test (MST)

(x3/2)4 = ?

  1. x3/8 divides the exponent by 4 instead of multiplying.
  2. A power of a power multiplies the exponents: (3/2) × 4 = 6, so x6.
  3. x81/16 raises the exponent 3/2 itself to the fourth power.
  4. x11/2 adds 4 to the exponent (3/2 + 4) instead of multiplying.

ID 858186Report a problem

Q10 of 50 · Math Skills Test (MST)

51² − 49² = ?

  1. 4 = (51 − 49)² squares the difference; a² − b² is not (a − b)².
  2. 100 is only the factor 51 + 49; it still has to be multiplied by 51 − 49 = 2.
  3. Use the difference of squares: 51² − 49² = (51 − 49)(51 + 49) = 2 × 100 = 200.
  4. 2 is only the factor 51 − 49; it still has to be multiplied by 51 + 49 = 100.

ID 858193Report a problem

Q11 of 50 · Math Skills Test (MST)

A crate holds apples and oranges in the ratio 3: 5. After 6 apples are added, the ratio becomes 1: 1. How many oranges are in the crate?

  1. 24 = 8 × 3 is the original total of apples and oranges.
  2. 9 = 3 × 3 is the original number of apples.
  3. 30 is the total after the 6 apples are added (15 + 15).
  4. Write the counts as 3k apples and 5k oranges; 3k + 6 = 5k gives k = 3, so there are 5 × 3 = 15 oranges.

ID 858213Report a problem

Q12 of 50 · Math Skills Test (MST)

In how many ways can 3 of 7 officers be assigned as captain, executive officer, and navigator (one person per job)?

  1. The jobs are different, so order matters: 7 × 6 × 5 = 210 assignments.
  2. 343 = 7³ lets one officer hold more than one job.
  3. 21 multiplies 7 officers by 3 jobs, which is not a counting rule.
  4. 35 = 210 ÷ 6 counts unordered groups of 3 and ignores who gets which job.

ID 858497Report a problem

Q13 of 50 · Math Skills Test (MST)

The sum of a number and its reciprocal is 10/3. What is the larger possible value of the number?

  1. 3/10 is the reciprocal of the sum 10/3; 3/10 + 10/3 is not 10/3.
  2. x + 1/x = 10/3 gives 3x² − 10x + 3 = (3x − 1)(x − 3) = 0, so x = 3 or 1/3; the larger is 3 (3 + 1/3 = 10/3).
  3. 1/3 is the other solution, and it is the smaller one.
  4. 10/3 is the sum itself, not the number; 10/3 + 3/10 is more than 10/3.

ID 858501Report a problem

Q14 of 50 · Math Skills Test (MST)

The edge of cube A is twice the edge of cube B. The volume of cube A is how many times the volume of cube B?

  1. 2 is the ratio of the edges; volume does not scale like length.
  2. 4 = 2² is how the face area scales, not the volume.
  3. Volume grows with the cube of the edge, so doubling the edge multiplies the volume by 2³ = 8.
  4. 6 multiplies 2 × 3 instead of raising 2 to the third power.

ID 858522Report a problem

Q15 of 50 · Math Skills Test (MST)

What is the equation of a circle with center (2, −3) and radius 5?

  1. (x + 2)² + (y − 3)² = 25 flips both signs; that circle is centered at (−2, 3).
  2. (x − 2)² + (y + 3)² = 5 has the right center but forgets to square the radius.
  3. The form is (x − h)² + (y − k)² = r²; with h = 2, k = −3 and r = 5 this is (x − 2)² + (y + 3)² = 25.
  4. (x + 2)² + (y + 3)² = 25 flips only the x sign; its center is (−2, −3).

ID 890906Report a problem

Q16 of 50 · Math Skills Test (MST)

A helicopter has a true airspeed of 120 knots and a 20-knot headwind. How long does it take to fly 150 nautical miles?

  1. A headwind subtracts: ground speed = 120 − 20 = 100 knots, and 150 ÷ 100 = 1.5 h, which is 1 h 30 min.
  2. 1 h 15 min uses the 120-knot airspeed and ignores the wind (150 ÷ 120 = 1.25 h).
  3. 1 h 4 min adds the headwind (140 knots, 150 ÷ 140 ≈ 1.07 h); a headwind slows the helicopter.
  4. 1 h 50 min reads 1.5 h as 1 hour 50 minutes; 0.5 h is 30 minutes.

ID 970043Report a problem

Q17 of 50 · Math Skills Test (MST)

A square landing pad has an area of 1,600 m². To the nearest meter, what is the distance from one corner to the opposite corner? (√2 ≈ 1.414)

  1. 69 m multiplies the side by √3 ≈ 1.73, the factor for a cube's space diagonal, not a square's.
  2. The side is √1,600 = 40 m, and the diagonal is 40 × √2 ≈ 40 × 1.414 = 56.6, about 57 m.
  3. 80 m walks along two sides (40 + 40) instead of cutting straight across.
  4. 40 m is the side of the pad, not the corner-to-corner distance.

ID 970047Report a problem

Q18 of 50 · Math Skills Test (MST)

An arithmetic sequence of 10 terms has first term 5 and sum 185. What is the common difference?

  1. The sum is n/2 × (2a + (n − 1)d): 185 = 5 × (10 + 9d), so 10 + 9d = 37 and d = 3 (terms 5, 8, …, 32).
  2. 2 subtracts the first term once instead of ten times: (185 − 5) ÷ 90.
  3. 1.5 treats the average term 18.5 as the last term: (18.5 − 5) ÷ 9 = 1.5. The last term is 32.
  4. 2.7 uses n instead of n − 1 steps: 185 = 5 × (10 + 10d) gives d = 2.7.

ID 813642Report a problem

Q19 of 50 · Math Skills Test (MST)

The probability of rain is 0.3 on Saturday and 0.4 on Sunday, independently. What is the probability that it rains on neither day?

  1. 0.28 = 0.7 × 0.4 is the chance of rain on Sunday only.
  2. 0.12 = 0.3 × 0.4 is the chance of rain on both days.
  3. 0.30 subtracts both rain chances from 1, which treats the two days as if rain could not fall on both.
  4. No rain has probability 0.7 on Saturday and 0.6 on Sunday; independent events multiply, so 0.7 × 0.6 = 0.42.

ID 857062Report a problem

Q20 of 50 · Math Skills Test (MST)

A vehicle moves at 66 feet per second. What is its speed in miles per hour? (1 mile = 5,280 feet)

  1. 96.8 mph turns the conversion upside down, 66 × 5,280 ÷ 3,600.
  2. 80 mph divides 5,280 by 66, which gives the seconds needed for one mile, not miles per hour.
  3. 0.75 mph multiplies by 60 (feet per minute) instead of 3,600 seconds in an hour.
  4. In one hour it covers 66 × 3,600 = 237,600 feet, and 237,600 ÷ 5,280 = 45 miles, so 45 mph.

ID 9410004Report a problem

Q21 of 50 · Reading Comprehension Test (RCT)

Read the passage

Tactical formation flying improves combat effectiveness through mutual support and coordinated action. The lead aircraft typically navigates and makes tactical decisions, while wingmen maintain position and provide defensive coverage. Communications between formation members must be concise and use standard terminology to ensure clarity in high-stress environments. Proper execution requires extensive training and disciplined adherence to procedures.

Which statement can be inferred only from the passage?

  1. The passage assigns roles directly: the lead navigates and decides, while "wingmen maintain position and provide defensive coverage."
  2. The passage says communications must be concise and standard, which means members do talk; strict radio silence is not mentioned.
  3. The passage links formations to mutual support and combat effectiveness; fuel savings on transit flights come from outside the text.
  4. This swaps the two roles: the passage gives tactical decisions to the lead aircraft and position-keeping to the wingmen.

ID 813236Report a problem

Q22 of 50 · Reading Comprehension Test (RCT)

Read the passage

Landing Signal Officers (LSOs) play a critical role in carrier aviation safety. Positioned near the landing area, they watch approaching aircraft and give pilots immediate feedback by radio. LSOs grade each landing, noting deviations from optimal parameters and recommending corrections. Their grades and comments form the basis for pilot debriefs and training improvements. An experienced LSO can detect developing problems before they become hazardous.

Which statement can be inferred only from the passage?

  1. The passage ties grades to debriefs and training improvements; discipline is never mentioned.
  2. The passage gives every LSO both jobs, radio feedback and grading; it never splits them by experience.
  3. The passage says LSO grades and comments "form the basis for pilot debriefs and training improvements," which is this statement in other words.
  4. The passage says LSOs give "immediate feedback by radio" while the aircraft approaches, not a written report afterward.

ID 813237Report a problem

Q23 of 50 · Reading Comprehension Test (RCT)

Read the passage

Weather minimums set the poorest meteorological conditions under which flight operations may be conducted. These limits vary with aircraft type, pilot qualifications, and mission requirements. Student pilots typically face more restrictive minimums than experienced aviators. The standards are not arbitrary; they are designed to maintain an appropriate safety margin for the given circumstances.

Which statement can be inferred only from the passage?

  1. The passage says minimums keep an appropriate safety margin; it gives experienced aviators no way to set them aside.
  2. The passage never gives a reason tied to the instruments of training aircraft.
  3. The passage describes minimums as set standards that vary with aircraft, qualifications, and mission; it never lets the pilot set them.
  4. The passage says student pilots "typically face more restrictive minimums than experienced aviators."

ID 813062Report a problem

Q24 of 50 · Reading Comprehension Test (RCT)

Read the passage

Helicopter aerodynamics differ significantly from fixed-wing principles. The rotor system generates lift by accelerating air downward, which allows vertical takeoff and landing. However, aerodynamic effects such as dissymmetry of lift, retreating blade stall, and vortex ring state present unique challenges. Pilots must thoroughly understand these effects to operate rotary-wing aircraft safely throughout their flight envelope.

Which statement can be inferred only from the passage?

  1. The passage ends by saying pilots must thoroughly understand effects such as vortex ring state to fly rotary-wing aircraft safely.
  2. The passage lists vortex ring state among challenges unique to rotary-wing flight.
  3. The first sentence says helicopter aerodynamics differ significantly from fixed-wing principles.
  4. The passage lists hazards unique to helicopters but never compares how many hazards each type of pilot faces.

ID 813243Report a problem

Q25 of 50 · Reading Comprehension Test (RCT)

Read the passage

Flight briefings establish a common understanding of planned operations. Weather conditions, mission objectives, emergency procedures, and coordination requirements are systematically addressed. All participants must actively engage, asking questions to resolve any uncertainties. The briefing concludes with an opportunity for final concerns or clarifications. This structured communication process ensures all crewmembers share a comprehensive mental model before flight.

Which statement can be inferred only from the passage?

  1. The passage says all participants "must actively engage, asking questions to resolve any uncertainties," so listening alone is not enough.
  2. The passage says the briefing builds a shared mental model, but it makes no comparison of error rates with crews that skip it.
  3. The passage never says who leads the briefing, and questions are asked throughout, not saved for the end.
  4. Emergency procedures are listed among the topics that are systematically addressed, whatever the weather.

ID 813244Report a problem

Q26 of 50 · Reading Comprehension Test (RCT)

Read the passage

The aircraft ejection sequence involves precisely timed events occurring within fractions of a second. When initiated, restraint systems tighten, the canopy jettisons or shatters, and rocket motors propel the seat from the aircraft. After reaching safe separation, automated systems deploy the parachute. Modern seats include electronic controllers that adjust the ejection profile based on airspeed, altitude, and aircraft attitude to optimize survival potential.

Which statement can be inferred only from the passage?

  1. The passage lists the restraints tightening before the canopy jettisons, so this order is reversed.
  2. The last sentence says modern seats have controllers that adjust the ejection profile based on airspeed, altitude, and attitude.
  3. The passage says the profile is adjusted to improve survival; it says nothing about ejecting on the ground at zero speed.
  4. The passage says automated systems deploy the parachute after safe separation, so the pilot does not do it by hand.

ID 813245Report a problem

Q27 of 50 · Reading Comprehension Test (RCT)

Read the passage

Naval aviators must master carrier landing techniques that differ substantially from conventional airfield operations. The approach uses a constant descent rate rather than the flatter profile typical at shore facilities. Visual guidance comes primarily from the optical landing system rather than runway markings. Additionally, pilots aim for a specific touchdown point that positions the tailhook to engage the arresting gear. These specialized procedures require extensive practice to develop proficiency.

Which statement can be inferred only from the passage?

  1. The passage says visual guidance comes primarily from the optical landing system, a visual aid.
  2. The tailhook is mentioned only in connection with the touchdown point; the passage says nothing about approach speed.
  3. The passage says the procedures require extensive practice, but it never says where or that a simulator is enough.
  4. The passage contrasts the carrier's constant descent rate with "the flatter profile typical at shore facilities," so the shore approach is the flatter one.

ID 813246Report a problem

Q28 of 50 · Reading Comprehension Test (RCT)

Read the passage

Compressibility effects become significant as aircraft approach transonic speeds. Air cannot move aside quickly enough, creating shock waves and unpredictable aerodynamic behavior. Control effectiveness may suddenly decrease, and stability characteristics can change dramatically. Early jet pilots discovered these effects through often fatal experience, which led to the development of swept wings and area-ruled fuselages that delay their onset.

Which statement can be inferred only from the passage?

  1. The passage says early jet pilots discovered these effects "through often fatal experience," so the effects were not known in advance.
  2. The last sentence says early pilots' experience "led to the development of swept wings and area-ruled fuselages that delay their onset."
  3. The passage says control effectiveness "may suddenly decrease," not that the controls stop working.
  4. The passage says shock waves form because air cannot move aside quickly enough; engine thrust is not mentioned.

ID 813238Report a problem

Q29 of 50 · Reading Comprehension Test (RCT)

Read the passage

Pre-deployment training for carrier air wings progresses through increasingly complex scenarios. Initial phases focus on individual aircraft tactics and basic coordination. As proficiency develops, training advances to multi-aircraft formations and integrated operations with other naval assets. The final phase involves full air wing operations against sophisticated simulated threats. This graduated approach builds capabilities systematically while identifying and addressing performance gaps before deployment.

Which statement can be inferred only from the passage?

  1. The passage says the final phase is flown against sophisticated simulated threats, not actual adversaries.
  2. The passage says gaps are identified and addressed before deployment, but nothing says they can delay the deployment date.
  3. The passage puts individual aircraft tactics in the initial phases, not the final one.
  4. Training starts with individual aircraft tactics and later "advances to multi-aircraft formations and integrated operations," so integrated work comes later.

ID 813249Report a problem

Q30 of 50 · Reading Comprehension Test (RCT)

Read the passage

Flight discipline refers to unwavering adherence to procedures, regulations, and operational limits despite external pressures or personal desires. It requires resisting mission completion bias when circumstances change. Many aviation mishaps result from deliberate procedural deviations rather than technical failures or skill deficiencies. Commanders establish the expected standard through personal example and consistent enforcement of established policies and procedures.

Which statement can be inferred only from the passage?

  1. Flight experience is never discussed; the link to fewer deviations is invented.
  2. The last sentence says commanders establish the expected standard "through personal example," so their own behavior helps set it.
  3. The passage stresses mishaps caused by deliberate deviations and makes no count showing technical failures are more common.
  4. The passage calls for resisting mission completion bias; it never calls the bias acceptable under any circumstances.

ID 813253Report a problem

Q31 of 50 · Reading Comprehension Test (RCT)

Read the passage

Before the Battle of Midway in June 1942, Navy cryptanalysts at Pearl Harbor had partly broken the Japanese naval code. They suspected that the target designated 'AF' in intercepted messages was Midway. To confirm it, Midway was instructed to send an uncoded message reporting that its water distillation plant had failed. Soon afterward, an intercepted Japanese message reported that 'AF' was short of water.

Which statement can be inferred only from the passage?

  1. The passage says they confirmed the meaning with a planted uncoded message, not from a captured codebook.
  2. The passage stops at the confirmation; it says nothing about how much the codebreakers decided the battle.
  3. Cryptanalysts suspected 'AF' was Midway, and the uncoded message was sent "to confirm it," so the message was a test of that guess.
  4. The passage says Midway was instructed to report a failure; it never says the plant actually broke or was repaired.

ID 813922Report a problem

Q32 of 50 · Reading Comprehension Test (RCT)

Read the passage

Aircraft classification systems categorize naval aircraft by mission and capability. Strike fighters conduct air-to-air and air-to-ground missions with sophisticated weapons systems. Maritime patrol aircraft perform anti-submarine warfare and surveillance over vast ocean areas. Electronic warfare platforms disrupt enemy sensor and communication networks. Rotary-wing assets provide utility transport, search and rescue, and anti-submarine capabilities. Each type requires specialized training protocols and maintenance procedures.

Which statement can be inferred only from the passage?

  1. The passage says electronic warfare platforms disrupt sensor and communication networks; jamming missiles after launch is not mentioned.
  2. The passage gives strike fighters air-to-air and air-to-ground missions; anti-submarine warfare belongs to patrol aircraft and helicopters.
  3. Anti-submarine warfare appears twice in the passage: once for maritime patrol aircraft and once for rotary-wing assets.
  4. Search and rescue is assigned to rotary-wing assets, not to maritime patrol aircraft.

ID 813415Report a problem

Q33 of 50 · Mechanical Comprehension Test (MCT)

In a pulley system, the effort force is 50 N and the mechanical advantage is 4. What load can be lifted?

  1. 12.5 N divides the effort by the MA, as if the pulleys made the load harder to lift.
  2. 54 N adds the MA to the effort (50 + 4) instead of multiplying.
  3. Load = mechanical advantage × effort = 4 × 50 N = 200 N.

ID 716107Report a problem

Q34 of 50 · Mechanical Comprehension Test (MCT)

A plank bridges a ditch, resting on supports at both ends. As a person walks across, the plank bends the most when the person is

  1. A beam on two supports has its largest bending moment, and so its greatest sag, with the load midway between the supports.
  2. Over a support the load goes straight into it and the plank barely bends.
  3. The plank bends at a quarter span, but less than at the middle.

ID 716119Report a problem

Q35 of 50 · Mechanical Comprehension Test (MCT)

Which statement about the center of gravity of a solid object is TRUE?

  1. The CG of a ring or a boomerang lies in empty space.
  2. The CG depends only on how the mass is spread through the object, so tilting does not move it within the object.
  3. The object may settle so its CG is low, but the point itself does not move within the object.

ID 716124Report a problem

Q36 of 50 · Mechanical Comprehension Test (MCT)

In a hand air pump, pulling the piston back enlarges the chamber and the intake valve opens. Why does the intake valve open?

  1. Pulling the piston enlarges the chamber, its pressure falls, and the higher outside pressure pushes the valve open.
  2. Higher chamber pressure would hold the intake valve shut and open the outlet.
  3. "Suction" is not a pulling force; the valve is pushed by the higher outside pressure.

ID 858054Report a problem

Q37 of 50 · Mechanical Comprehension Test (MCT)

A block of wood whose density is ¾ that of water floats in a pond. What fraction of the block's volume is under water?

  1. ¼ is the fraction above the water, not under it.
  2. A floating object sinks until it displaces its own weight of water, so the submerged fraction equals its density ratio, ¾.
  3. Only an object as dense as water floats fully submerged.

ID 858090Report a problem

Q38 of 50 · Mechanical Comprehension Test (MCT)

A 200-kg cart is pushed with a horizontal force of 500 N. Friction on the cart is 100 N. What is its acceleration?

  1. 0.5 m/s² divides only the 100-N friction by the mass, as if friction were the net force.
  2. Net force = 500 − 100 = 400 N, and a = 400 ÷ 200 = 2 m/s².
  3. 2.5 m/s² uses the 500-N push and forgets to subtract friction.

ID 970282Report a problem

Q39 of 50 · Mechanical Comprehension Test (MCT)

A double-pane window has a thin, sealed layer of still air between two sheets of glass. Why does it lose less heat than a single thicker pane of glass?

  1. The sealed air layer is a poor conductor of heat, so heat crosses it far more slowly than through solid glass.
  2. Clear glass reflects little heat; the trapped air layer, not reflection, does the work.
  3. Thicker glass would insulate slightly better, not worse; the gain comes from the air gap.

ID 858068Report a problem

Q40 of 50 · Mechanical Comprehension Test (MCT)

Two identical bulbs are connected in parallel across a battery. Treating the battery as ideal, how brightly does each bulb glow compared with one bulb alone on the same battery?

  1. Half is the voltage each bulb gets in series, not the parallel case.
  2. In parallel, each bulb sits across the full battery voltage, so each carries the same current as a single bulb.
  3. One-fourth is roughly the power each bulb gets in series, where the bulbs share the voltage.

ID 857756Report a problem

Q41 of 50 · Mechanical Comprehension Test (MCT)

A little water is boiled in an empty metal can, the can is sealed, and then it is cooled. The can crumples. What crushes it?

  1. Water cannot pull on the walls; only a pressure difference pushes them.
  2. Thermal shrinking is tiny and even; it cannot crumple a can.
  3. Cooling condenses the steam, the pressure inside falls far below atmospheric, and the outside air pressure crushes the can.

ID 858315Report a problem

Q42 of 50 · Mechanical Comprehension Test (MCT)

A hammer and a feather are released together from the same height inside a vacuum chamber. Which reaches the bottom first?

  1. In air the hammer wins only because drag slows the light feather; the vacuum removes that drag.
  2. Nothing makes the feather fall faster; with no air it keeps pace with the hammer.
  3. With no air resistance every object falls with the same acceleration, whatever its mass, so both arrive at once.

ID 858280Report a problem

Q43 of 50 · Mechanical Comprehension Test (MCT)

Two motors each lift an identical 100-lb load through 30 feet. Motor A does it in 10 seconds and motor B in 20 seconds. How does motor A's power output compare with motor B's?

  1. This flips the ratio: taking less time means more power, not less.
  2. Equal work is right, but power also depends on how fast the work is done.
  3. Both do the same work, 100 lb × 30 ft; A does it in half the time, so its power is twice as great.

ID 813254Report a problem

Q44 of 50 · Mechanical Comprehension Test (MCT)

Why is a car radiator built with many thin metal fins?

  1. Fins are on the outside; coolant speed is set by the water pump.
  2. Heat leaves through the metal surface, so many thin fins give much more area for the passing air to carry heat away.
  3. Boiling is controlled by the pressure cap and the cooling itself; fins only help the cooling.

ID 813260Report a problem

Q45 of 50 · Aviation and Nautical Information Test (ANIT)

In October 1947, Chuck Yeager first exceeded Mach 1 in level flight in the ____.

  1. The P-59 was the first U.S. jet (1942), but it was slow and never came near Mach 1.
  2. The Skyrocket was the first to reach Mach 2, in 1953, not Mach 1 in 1947.
  3. Yeager flew the rocket-powered Bell X-1 "Glamorous Glennis" past Mach 1 on 14 October 1947.
  4. The X-2 flew in the mid-1950s and reached Mach 3; it came after the X-1.

ID 813096Report a problem

Q46 of 50 · Aviation and Nautical Information Test (ANIT)

Before a flight, where should a pilot check for a runway closed yesterday or a newly unlit obstruction that is not yet on the charts?

  1. The Chart Supplement is published on a 56-day cycle, so yesterday's closure is not in it.
  2. METARs are routine weather observations at an airport.
  3. Pilot reports describe weather and turbulence that pilots meet in flight, not runway or obstacle status.
  4. Notices to Air Missions carry time-critical changes, such as closed runways and unlit obstructions, before charts catch up.

ID 813108Report a problem

Q47 of 50 · Aviation and Nautical Information Test (ANIT)

A wind that shifts clockwise, for example from north to east, is said to be ____.

  1. Backing is the opposite: a counterclockwise shift, such as east to north.
  2. Freshening describes a wind growing stronger, not changing direction.
  3. Moderating means the wind is easing in strength.
  4. A veering wind shifts clockwise, for example from north to east.

ID 813156Report a problem

Q48 of 50 · Aviation and Nautical Information Test (ANIT)

DME displays the ____ distance to the station.

  1. DME times a radio signal to and from the station, so it measures the straight line from the aircraft up high to the station.
  2. Along-track distance is measured on the route, as GPS can compute; DME has no route information.
  3. Ground distance is shorter than slant range; the difference is largest when the aircraft is high and close to the station.
  4. Great-circle distance is the shortest path over the Earth's surface, again a ground measure.

ID 813158Report a problem

Q49 of 50 · Aviation and Nautical Information Test (ANIT)

Which wing member runs spanwise from root to tip and carries the main bending loads?

  1. Longerons are the main lengthwise members of the fuselage, not the wing.
  2. Spars run root to tip and carry the main bending loads of the wing.
  3. Ribs run chordwise, front to back, and give the wing its airfoil shape.
  4. Stringers are light spanwise stiffeners that keep the skin from buckling; they are not the main load path.

ID 813186Report a problem

Q50 of 50 · Aviation and Nautical Information Test (ANIT)

A transponder operating in Mode C sends ATC its ____.

  1. GPS position is broadcast by ADS-B Out, not by a Mode C reply.
  2. Code only is Mode A.
  3. A Mode C reply carries no airspeed.
  4. Mode C adds the encoder's pressure altitude to the four-digit code.

ID 813082Report a problem

Your tally shows here once every question above has an answer.

Reading Comprehension Test (RCT)

RCT gives you a short passage and asks which statement follows from it. NAMI's instruction is the whole technique: the keyed answer is the one the passage alone supports, and a choice that is true in real life can still be wrong. RCT is adaptive, like the other knowledge subtests.

Three slips cost the most points:

  • Absolute words. A choice saying always, only or all is right only if the passage says that strongly.
  • Cause turned around. The passage says A led to B; a choice says B led to A.
  • A dropped condition. The passage says something happens if a condition holds; a choice states it without the if.

Passage reading in general is taught on Paragraph Comprehension, the site's page for that skill. RCT also counts toward the OAR.

What a static set cannot copy

  • Skipping. Allowed here, not on test day: the adaptive subtests let you neither skip nor go back, and NAMI's advice comes down to "finish; don't guess blindly".
  • Three-choice mechanics. NAMI's samples give 4 choices on MST, RCT and ANIT; 3 on MCT; the MCT-style items in this set have three choices too.
  • PBM and NATFI. The psychomotor battery and the personality inventory have no right-answer items to post. What they involve is on exam facts.
  • Subtest shares. NAMI publishes no split, so the mix above is ours, not the test's.

ASTB-E questions for the commute

Practice on your phone

ASTB-E questions with the reasoning for every choice, in a study app (see both stores).

App StoreGoogle Play

Subtest pages and guides

  • ASTB-ENavy, Marine Corps and Coast Guard aviation battery: parts, scores, retakes
  • ASTB-E exam factsAdaptive format, length, retakes, PBM and NATFI explained
  • ASTB-E scoresOAR, AQR, PFAR, FOFAR and the published program minimums with dates
  • ASTB-E study guideStudy order for the six parts: what moves with study and what doesn't

About this ASTB-E question set

Were these items taken from a real ASTB-E form?

No. The test's item bank is not public. These are written in the style of NAMI's published sample questions, with reasoning for each choice. NAMI's own sample questions are worth working too.

Why is there no PBM practice here?

PBM is a timed, device-based battery with a stick, throttle and headphones, so a page of text cannot copy it. NAMI recommends rotating shapes in your head and flying a simulator with a stick and throttle; see the PBM section.

Which subtest should I drill first?

Start with ANIT, the subtest NAMI says study improves most, then the one you miss most on a mixed set. The order of work is on the ASTB-E study guide.