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Practice · four text subtests · checked Nov 6, 2026

SIFT practice test, the four text subtests

Updated Nov 6, 2026facts checked Nov 6, 2026

40 questions from the four subtests that work as written text, with a short reason under each answer choice. The picture subtests are covered in format guides instead, and the reason is explained below.

Which subtests are here, and which are not

The questions come from four SIFT subtests: Math Skills, Reading Comprehension, Mechanical Comprehension and Army Aviation Information. It does not imitate the picture subtests. Simple Drawings, Hidden Figures and Spatial Apperception are built from images, and a written description of a shape turns a split-second visual task into a word puzzle. Two of them have format guides, Hidden Figures and Spatial Apperception; Simple Drawings is described under exam facts.

On the real test, Math Skills and Mechanical Comprehension adapt to your answers, and the fixed subtests count a blank as wrong. Notes on each part follow.

Math Skills Test: adaptive, no calculator

On test day this subtest is adaptive: the next item gets harder or easier depending on how you answered the last one, so people see different numbers of items. Time: 40 minutes; the number of items varies. There is no calculator; a few formulas are provided, with scrap paper and pencils. Under adaptive scoring, too few answers is penalized; random guessing usually hurts more, so finish at a steady pace rather than clicking through at the end.

The content is the arithmetic, word problems, algebra and geometry found on other military tests. Topic-by-topic explanations live on Arithmetic Reasoning and Math Knowledge; the items below are a separate set, so nothing repeats.

Reading Comprehension Test: fixed passages

Reading sections adapt on some other military tests; this one does not. Time: 30 minutes for 20 items, about 90 seconds each. A blank counts as wrong, so guess before time runs out. The passage-reading method (main idea versus detail, what the text supports versus what is true in general) is on Paragraph Comprehension.

Mechanical Comprehension Test: short and adaptive

Adaptive like Math Skills, with the shortest limit of the knowledge subtests (15 min), so lingering over one pulley problem costs you. Levers, gears, pulleys, pressure and basic electricity are explained subject by subject on ASVAB Mechanical Comprehension.

Army Aviation Information Test: helicopters first

A fixed set, heavy on rotor systems and helicopter controls. Time: 30 minutes for 40 items, about 45 seconds each. A blank counts as wrong, so guess before time runs out. A larger helicopter set and the topic list are on the Army Aviation Information Test page.

40 practice questions by subtest

0 of 40 answeredPick a letter: the reasoning for every choice opens under it.
Q1 of 40 · Army Aviation Information Test (AAIT)

A NOTAR helicopter counters main rotor torque mainly by –

  1. That is a coaxial or tandem helicopter, which needs no anti-torque system at the tail.
  2. NOTAR blows fan air out of slots along the boom; the downwash bends around it (Coanda effect) and pushes sideways.
  3. Mast tilt corrects drift, not torque.
  4. That describes a Fenestron, a different anti-torque design.

ID 924515Report a problem

Q2 of 40 · Army Aviation Information Test (AAIT)

A helicopter in vortex ring state sinks faster each time the pilot raises the collective. The correct recovery is to –

  1. Slowing down keeps the rotor inside its own downwash.
  2. Raising the collective alone only deepens the recirculation and the sink rate; the FAA's Vuichard recovery adds power only together with lateral cyclic.
  3. Flying out of the descending air with forward (or lateral) cyclic, or reducing collective, ends the recirculation.
  4. Low rotor rpm reduces lift and control and makes the situation worse.

ID 924519Report a problem

Q3 of 40 · Army Aviation Information Test (AAIT)

Helicopter movement above the surface, in ground effect, at less than about 20 knots is called –

  1. The AIM defines hover taxi as movement above the surface, in ground effect, at less than about 20 knots.
  2. Air taxi is above 20 knots or above ground effect, at the pilot's chosen altitude.
  3. Ground taxi is moving on the surface, wheels on the ground.
  4. Rotor taxi is not an AIM term.

ID 924520Report a problem

Q4 of 40 · Army Aviation Information Test (AAIT)

From a hover, the pilot moves the cyclic forward without adding collective. The helicopter will –

  1. Forward cyclic pitches the nose down and speeds the helicopter up.
  2. Tilting the rotor disc forward turns part of its thrust horizontal, so the vertical part drops and the helicopter settles.
  3. A climb comes later, once translational lift builds at higher speed; at first the helicopter does not accelerate and climb.
  4. Holding height needs more collective to make up for the tilted thrust.

ID 924706Report a problem

Q5 of 40 · Army Aviation Information Test (AAIT)

A helicopter with a counter-clockwise main rotor (viewed from above) accelerates through about 10–20 knots and rolls slightly right with some vibration. The main cause is –

  1. Dissymmetry of lift is the left-right airspeed difference, which blade flapping evens out.
  2. Retreating blade stall happens near high forward speed, not at 10–20 knots.
  3. Translating tendency is a sideways drift at a hover caused by tail rotor thrust.
  4. At 10–20 knots the rear of the disc gets more downflow than the front; precession shows this as a right roll with vibration.

ID 924712Report a problem

Q6 of 40 · Army Aviation Information Test (AAIT)

Mast bumping is mainly a hazard of which main rotor system?

  1. Articulated heads have separate flapping hinges for each blade, so the hub does not teeter against the mast.
  2. A rigid rotor flexes its blades instead of teetering, so mast bumping does not occur.
  3. Bearingless rotors flex in composite parts; they have no teetering hub to strike the mast.
  4. A two-blade semi-rigid (teetering) head can flap until the hub strikes the mast, especially in low-G flight.

ID 924449Report a problem

Q7 of 40 · Math Skills Test (MST)

A transport aircraft can carry a maximum payload of 30,000 pounds. Each supply container weighs 450 pounds. What is the greatest number of containers it can carry?

  1. 666 slips a decimal place, dividing by 45 instead of 450.
  2. 67 rounds 66 2/3 up and would exceed the 30,000-pound limit by 150 pounds.
  3. 30,000 ÷ 450 = 66 2/3; a partial container cannot be loaded, so the limit is 66.
  4. 60 rounds each container up to 500 pounds before dividing.

ID 716149Report a problem

Q8 of 40 · Math Skills Test (MST)

A cook feeds 150 soldiers 2 meat meals a day, using 0.3 pound of meat per meal. How many pounds of meat are needed for 5 days?

  1. 90 pounds covers one day; the question asks for 5 days.
  2. 150 soldiers × 2 meals × 0.3 pound × 5 days = 450 pounds.
  3. 45 pounds covers a single meal for the 150 soldiers.
  4. 225 pounds counts only one meat meal a day for 5 days.

ID 716326Report a problem

Q9 of 40 · Math Skills Test (MST)

A unit's vehicle-maintenance budget is $360,000. If 40% of it has been spent, how much is left?

  1. 40% of $360,000 is $144,000 spent, so $216,000 (60%) is left.
  2. $504,000 adds the 40% to the budget.
  3. $144,000 is the amount already spent, not what is left.
  4. $320,000 subtracts $40,000 instead of 40%.

ID 716333Report a problem

Q10 of 40 · Math Skills Test (MST)

A square radar display has a perimeter of 64 inches. What is its area?

  1. 1,024 square inches takes half the perimeter, 32 inches, as the side.
  2. 4,096 square inches squares the whole perimeter, 64².
  3. Each side is 64 ÷ 4 = 16 inches, so the area is 16² = 256 square inches.
  4. 16 is the side length in inches; it still has to be squared.

ID 813318Report a problem

Q11 of 40 · Math Skills Test (MST)

(210 − 1) ÷ (25 − 1) = ?

  1. 210 − 1 = (25 − 1)(25 + 1), a difference of squares, so the quotient is 25 + 1 = 33.
  2. 32 subtracts exponents (210 − 5) as if the −1s were not there.
  3. 4 divides the exponents, 210 ÷ 5 = 2².
  4. 31 is 25 − 1, the divisor, not the quotient.

ID 858525Report a problem

Q12 of 40 · Math Skills Test (MST)

If f(x) = x² − 2x + 3 and g(x) = 2x + 1, what is f(g(3))?

  1. 66 adds the middle term (49 + 14 + 3); f has −2x, so it is −14.
  2. Work from the inside: g(3) = 2 × 3 + 1 = 7, then f(7) = 49 − 14 + 3 = 38.
  3. 13 reverses the order and computes g(f(3)) = g(6) = 13.
  4. 7 is g(3); f has not been applied yet.

ID 857652Report a problem

Q13 of 40 · Math Skills Test (MST)

20 − 12 ÷ 4 × 3 + 6 = ?

  1. 5 subtracts 9 + 6 as a group; addition and subtraction also go left to right.
  2. Division and multiplication come first, left to right: 12 ÷ 4 = 3 and 3 × 3 = 9; then 20 − 9 + 6 = 17.
  3. 25 multiplies 4 × 3 before dividing (12 ÷ 12 = 1); division and multiplication go left to right.
  4. 12 works strictly left to right from 20 − 12, ignoring that division and multiplication come first.

ID 858221Report a problem

Q14 of 40 · Math Skills Test (MST)

A patrol boat leaves port at 10 knots. Three hours later a second boat leaves the same port on the same course at 15 knots. How many hours after it leaves will the second boat catch up?

  1. In 3 hours the first boat gets 30 nautical miles ahead; the second closes that gap at 15 − 10 = 5 knots, so 30 ÷ 5 = 6 hours.
  2. 2 hours divides the 30-mile head start by the second boat's full 15 knots; the first boat keeps moving.
  3. 3 hours assumes the second boat needs as long as the head start; it gains only 5 knots on the first boat.
  4. 1.2 hours divides by the sum of the speeds (25 knots), which fits boats moving toward each other.

ID 858232Report a problem

Q15 of 40 · Math Skills Test (MST)

On a chart, 1 inch represents 40 nautical miles. Two ports are 3 3/4 inches apart on the chart. What is the actual distance?

  1. 140 nautical miles treats 3/4 as 1/2 (3.5 × 40).
  2. 120 nautical miles drops the 3/4 inch (3 × 40).
  3. 130 nautical miles reads 3 3/4 as 3.25 (3 1/4 inches), confusing 3/4 with 1/4.
  4. Multiply the chart distance by the scale: 3.75 × 40 = 150 nautical miles.

ID 858236Report a problem

Q16 of 40 · Math Skills Test (MST)

Pump A can empty a flooded compartment in 6 hours, and pump B can empty it in 3 hours. Working together, how long do the two pumps take?

  1. 3 hours is pump B alone; adding pump A can only make the job faster.
  2. 4.5 hours averages the two times; work rates add, times do not average.
  3. 9 hours adds the times, as if one pump worked after the other.
  4. Rates add: 1/6 + 1/3 = 1/2 compartment per hour, so together they need 2 hours.

ID 9410003Report a problem

Q17 of 40 · Reading Comprehension Test (RCT)

Read the passage

Cloud types provide crucial information for pilots. Cumulonimbus clouds, characterized by their towering vertical development, indicate severe turbulence, strong updrafts and downdrafts, and potential icing conditions. These phenomena present significant hazards to aviation and are typically avoided whenever possible.

Which statement can be inferred only from the passage?

  1. The passage says these clouds are "typically avoided whenever possible," not flown through.
  2. This explains how the clouds form, which may be true but is not stated in the passage.
  3. The passage describes cumulonimbus only and gives no hazards for other clouds.
  4. The passage lists severe turbulence, strong updrafts and downdrafts, and possible icing as the hazards of cumulonimbus clouds.

ID 813057Report a problem

Q18 of 40 · Reading Comprehension Test (RCT)

Read the passage

Aviation weather reports use specialized terminology to convey atmospheric conditions concisely. METAR observations provide current conditions at specific locations, while TAF forecasts predict expected changes. Pilots must decode these standardized formats to extract critical information about visibility, cloud layers, precipitation, wind, and hazardous phenomena. Misinterpretation of these reports can lead to inadvertent flight into dangerous conditions exceeding aircraft or pilot capabilities.

Which statement can be inferred only from the passage?

  1. The last sentence says misinterpreting these reports "can lead to inadvertent flight into dangerous conditions exceeding aircraft or pilot capabilities."
  2. The passage warns that misinterpretation happens, so standard formats do not prevent it.
  3. The passage says pilots "must decode" these formats, so they are not plain language.
  4. This swaps the two reports: METAR gives current conditions and TAF forecasts changes.

ID 813250Report a problem

Q19 of 40 · Reading Comprehension Test (RCT)

Read the passage

Aircraft takeoff performance calculations incorporate multiple variables including weight, altitude, temperature, and runway characteristics. Higher temperatures reduce air density, decreasing thrust and lift generation. Similarly, higher field elevations produce less dense air, extending takeoff roll requirements. Runway contamination from rain, snow, or ice increases rolling resistance and degrades braking action. Professional pilots calculate these factors with conservative margins, recognizing that published performance data reflects optimal conditions rarely encountered in operational environments.

Which statement can be inferred only from the passage?

  1. The passage says contamination "degrades braking action"; more rolling resistance does not improve braking.
  2. Higher temperature and higher field elevation both reduce air density, and the passage links less dense air to a longer takeoff roll.
  3. The passage says higher temperatures reduce air density and decrease thrust, which lengthens the roll.
  4. The passage says published data reflect optimal conditions, so contamination is not already included.

ID 813563Report a problem

Q20 of 40 · Reading Comprehension Test (RCT)

Read the passage

Wake turbulence presents significant hazards to following aircraft. These organized vortices generated at wingtips persist for several minutes and drift with the wind while gradually descending. The intensity correlates directly with aircraft weight and inversely with airspeed. Heavy aircraft in clean configuration at slow speeds produce the most powerful vortices. Smaller aircraft encountering wake turbulence may experience uncontrollable rolling moments exceeding their design limitations. Standard separation minimums provide safety margins, but pilots must remain vigilant when operating behind larger aircraft, particularly during approach and departure phases.

Which statement can be inferred only from the passage?

  1. The passage says the strongest vortices come from heavy aircraft that are clean and slow, the opposite of fast with flaps and gear down.
  2. The passage says separation provides margins but pilots "must remain vigilant" behind larger aircraft.
  3. The passage says vortices "persist for several minutes," so they remain a hazard after the generating aircraft has gone by.
  4. The passage says vortices drift with the wind while "gradually descending," not rising.

ID 813565Report a problem

Q21 of 40 · Reading Comprehension Test (RCT)

Read the passage

Radio discipline contributes significantly to aviation communication efficiency. Transmissions should be brief, using standard phraseology whenever possible. Pilots should mentally compose messages before keying the microphone, ensuring clarity and conciseness. Proper radio techniques include maintaining consistent volume, speaking at moderate pace, and enunciating clearly. Common errors include beginning transmissions immediately upon keying the microphone, excessive verbosity, and nonstandard terminology. In congested airspace, disciplined radio procedures prevent frequency saturation that could delay critical communications.

Which statement can be inferred only from the passage?

  1. The passage says disciplined radio use prevents saturation; it never blames controllers.
  2. The passage lists "beginning transmissions immediately upon keying the microphone" among common errors.
  3. The passage asks pilots to speak "at moderate pace," not quickly.
  4. The passage calls nonstandard terminology a common error and asks for standard phraseology.

ID 813566Report a problem

Q22 of 40 · Reading Comprehension Test (RCT)

Read the passage

Inflight fires demand immediate, decisive action from flight crews. The time between fire detection and potential aircraft structural compromise may be mere minutes. Initial actions typically include donning oxygen masks to prevent smoke incapacitation, identifying the fire source, and applying appropriate firefighting agents. Electrical fires require power isolation, while engine fires require shutting down the affected engine before the extinguishing agent is discharged. Regardless of fire type, crews must evaluate diversion options and prepare for immediate landing. Simulator training scenarios emphasize time-critical decision making under the extreme stress these emergencies generate.

Which statement can be inferred only from the passage?

  1. This reverses the order the passage gives: the engine is shut down first, and then the agent is discharged.
  2. The passage never compares the danger of electrical and engine fires; smoke is a risk with any fire.
  3. The passage says "regardless of fire type, crews must evaluate diversion options and prepare for immediate landing."
  4. The passage lists putting on oxygen masks first, before identifying the source.

ID 813567Report a problem

Q23 of 40 · Reading Comprehension Test (RCT)

Read the passage

Modern aircraft incorporate multiple redundant systems to enhance safety and dispatch reliability. Critical flight controls feature independent hydraulic systems powered by separate sources. Essential electrical components receive power from isolated buses with automatic transfer capability. Navigation systems include diverse technologies operating on different physical principles to prevent common-mode failures. This design philosophy ensures that no single component failure will jeopardize aircraft safety. The concept extends beyond hardware to include operational procedures that provide overlapping safeguards against human error and mechanical malfunction.

Which statement can be inferred only from the passage?

  1. The passage says the hydraulic systems are powered by separate sources.
  2. The passage says the design philosophy extends to procedures that guard against human error.
  3. Navigation systems use diverse technologies on different physical principles "to prevent common-mode failures," so one fault does not take them all down.
  4. The passage names safety and dispatch reliability together as the goals.

ID 813568Report a problem

Q24 of 40 · Reading Comprehension Test (RCT)

Read the passage

Naval aviators operate within a structured qualification progression system. Initial carrier qualification demonstrates basic proficiency in takeoff and landing aboard ship. Combat qualification follows, incorporating tactical procedures and mission capabilities. Subsequent designations include section lead, division lead, and ultimately mission commander. Each level requires demonstrating specific skills and judgment capabilities before formal designation. This systematic approach ensures appropriate experience levels before assuming additional responsibility. Despite technological advances in simulation, certain qualifications remain exclusively available through actual flight operations where environmental factors cannot be fully replicated.

Which statement can be inferred only from the passage?

  1. The passage lists combat qualification before section lead, so this order is reversed.
  2. The passage says each level requires demonstrating skills and judgment, not logging hours.
  3. The passage says some qualifications still require actual flight despite advances in simulation.
  4. The last sentence says that despite advances in simulation, certain qualifications are "exclusively available through actual flight operations."

ID 813570Report a problem

Q25 of 40 · Reading Comprehension Test (RCT)

Read the passage

Helicopter search patterns maximize the probability of detection when seeking distressed vessels or survivors. The expanding square pattern begins at the most probable location and systematically covers an increasing area. Parallel track patterns provide thorough coverage of rectangular search zones, while sector searches efficiently scan areas when the target's location is somewhat known but uncertain. The specific pattern selection depends on weather visibility, target characteristics, fuel availability, and certainty of the last known position. Effective execution requires precise navigation and maintaining proper altitude for optimal sensor and visual detection.

Which statement can be inferred only from the passage?

  1. The passage calls for "proper altitude" for sensors and eyes, not the lowest possible altitude.
  2. The passage lists the "certainty of the last known position" among the factors that decide the pattern.
  3. Rectangular zones call for parallel track patterns; sector searches are for a location that is somewhat known.
  4. The passage says the expanding square begins at the most probable location and covers an increasing area, outward.

ID 813697Report a problem

Q26 of 40 · Reading Comprehension Test (RCT)

Read the passage

A hazard report shall be submitted whenever a hazardous condition is identified that could cause a mishap, whether or not any damage or injury has occurred. The report is submitted by the unit that discovers the hazard. If the hazard involves equipment operated by other units, the report shall also be sent to those units for their information.

Which statement can be inferred only from the passage?

  1. A report is required whenever a hazard is found "whether or not any damage or injury has occurred."
  2. The passage says the unit that discovers the hazard submits the report.
  3. Other units receive the report "for their information"; the passage sets no duty for them to act.
  4. The passage ties the report to finding the hazard, not to fixing it.

ID 813924Report a problem

Q27 of 40 · Mechanical Comprehension Test (MCT)

A mechanic pushes with 40 lb at the end of a 12-inch wrench. A pipe extends the handle to 18 inches, and the mechanic pushes with the same 40 lb at its end. What torque is applied to the bolt now?

  1. 240 lb-in uses only the 6 inches the pipe adds as the lever arm; the arm runs from the bolt to the hands, 18 in.
  2. 480 lb-in is the torque with the original 12-inch wrench, ignoring the pipe.
  3. Torque = 40 lb × 18 in = 720 lb-in.
  4. 1,080 lb-in multiplies 720 by the 1.5 length ratio again, counting the extension twice.

ID 813032Report a problem

Q28 of 40 · Mechanical Comprehension Test (MCT)

A lamp draws 3 amperes from a 12-volt battery. It is replaced by a lamp with twice the resistance, on the same battery. What current flows now?

  1. 0.75 A divides by 4, as if current fell with the square of resistance.
  2. The first lamp is 12 V ÷ 3 A = 4 Ω; twice that is 8 Ω, and 12 V ÷ 8 Ω = 1.5 A.
  3. 3 A assumes the current does not depend on resistance.
  4. 6 A doubles the current, as if more resistance let more current through.

ID 813137Report a problem

Q29 of 40 · Mechanical Comprehension Test (MCT)

A capacitor is charged by a battery and then disconnected from it. A small lamp is then connected across the capacitor. What does the lamp do?

  1. Once charged, the capacitor can light the lamp briefly by itself.
  2. The stored charge does drive a short current through the lamp.
  3. A capacitor is not a battery; it has no chemical source to keep the current going.
  4. The capacitor's small stored charge flows through the lamp, so it glows briefly and goes out as the voltage falls to zero.

ID 813139Report a problem

Q30 of 40 · Mechanical Comprehension Test (MCT)

A 2,000-lb car moves at 30 mph and a 4,000-lb truck moves at 15 mph. Which has more momentum?

  1. The truck has twice the mass, but only half the speed.
  2. The car has twice the speed, but only half the mass.
  3. Momentum depends only on mass and velocity; braking force is not needed.
  4. 2,000 × 30 = 60,000 and 4,000 × 15 = 60,000, so the two momenta are equal.

ID 813141Report a problem

Q31 of 40 · Mechanical Comprehension Test (MCT)

A metal lid is stuck tight on a glass jar. Running hot water over the lid loosens it because the metal ____.

  1. Hot water warms the metal lid, which expands more than the glass rim and loosens its grip.
  2. Hot tap water does not soften steel; the lid loosens because it grows.
  3. If both grew by the same amount, the fit would stay tight.
  4. Metals expand when heated, not contract.

ID 813143Report a problem

Q32 of 40 · Mechanical Comprehension Test (MCT)

On a cold morning, a metal bench and a wooden bench have both been outside all night. Why does the metal bench feel colder to the touch?

  1. Dead wood makes no heat of its own.
  2. Both benches are at the same temperature, but metal conducts heat away from the skin much faster.
  3. There is no "cold" to hold; what differs is how fast heat flows out of the hand.
  4. After a night outside, both have reached the same air temperature.

ID 813149Report a problem

Q33 of 40 · Mechanical Comprehension Test (MCT)

A hand windlass has a crank handle 12 in from the axle and a drum 6 in in diameter. Ignoring friction, what force on the handle lifts a 200-lb bucket?

  1. The drum radius is 3 in, so MA = 12 ÷ 3 = 4, and 200 ÷ 4 = 50 lb.
  2. 100 lb uses the 6-inch diameter as if it were the radius.
  3. 200 lb ignores the windlass's mechanical advantage.
  4. 800 lb multiplies by the mechanical advantage instead of dividing.

ID 970276Report a problem

Q34 of 40 · Mechanical Comprehension Test (MCT)

A wing fitting cracks after thousands of flights, although no single flight load ever exceeded its strength. The most likely cause is ____.

  1. Cold can make some metals brittle, but it does not explain damage building up over thousands of flights.
  2. Creep is slow stretching at high temperature, as in turbine blades, not in a wing fitting.
  3. Fatigue cracks grow slowly under many cycles of load, even when each load is well below the part's strength.
  4. The stem says no single load ever exceeded the part's strength.

ID 813152Report a problem

Q35 of 40 · Mechanical Comprehension Test (MCT)

Mountain roads often zigzag up a slope in switchbacks instead of running straight up. Why?

  1. Switchbacks make the slope gentler, so a vehicle climbs with less force, spread over a longer distance; the work is the same.
  2. Engine efficiency is not what changes; the force needed does.
  3. The work to raise the vehicle depends only on its weight and the height gained.
  4. A zigzag road is longer than a straight one.

ID 857720Report a problem

Q36 of 40 · Mechanical Comprehension Test (MCT)

A bucket of water is swung in a vertical circle fast enough that no water spills. At the very top of the circle, in which direction is the net force on the water?

  1. The velocity is horizontal at the top, but the net force is at right angles to it, toward the center.
  2. Moving in a circle means the direction keeps changing, which needs a net force.
  3. At the top of the circle the center is below the water, so the net (centripetal) force points straight down.
  4. The water seems pressed outward, but that feeling is its inertia; the net force points inward, here downward.

ID 857804Report a problem

Q37 of 40 · Army Aviation Information Test (AAIT)

If the pitot tube and its drain hole are both blocked while the static port stays open, during a climb the airspeed indicator will ____.

  1. Dropping to zero happens when only the inlet is blocked and the drain stays open, letting the trapped pressure escape.
  2. A decrease happens if the airplane descends with this blockage, not in a climb.
  3. Trapped pitot pressure stays fixed while static pressure falls in the climb, so the airspeed indicator reads higher like an altimeter.
  4. It would stay constant only at a constant altitude, because static pressure is still changing.

ID 813159Report a problem

Q38 of 40 · Army Aviation Information Test (AAIT)

In 1932 Amelia Earhart became the first woman to ____.

  1. In May 1932 Earhart flew alone from Newfoundland to Northern Ireland, the first woman to do so.
  2. Jacqueline Cochran was the first woman to break the sound barrier, in 1953.
  3. Harriet Quimby earned the first U.S. pilot's license held by a woman, in 1911.
  4. Quimby also made that crossing first, in 1912.

ID 813160Report a problem

Q39 of 40 · Army Aviation Information Test (AAIT)

Which set lists only primary flight controls?

  1. Flaps are secondary controls, so this set is not "only primary."
  2. These three control roll, pitch and yaw, the primary flight controls.
  3. Trim tabs are secondary controls that relieve control pressure.
  4. These are all secondary or high-lift devices.

ID 813176Report a problem

Q40 of 40 · Army Aviation Information Test (AAIT)

Compared with a forward center of gravity, an aft center of gravity (within limits) makes an airplane ____.

  1. This describes a forward CG, the reverse case.
  2. Stability does fall, but the lighter tail load lowers the stall speed rather than raising it.
  3. The stall speed does fall, but moving the CG aft reduces longitudinal stability.
  4. An aft CG shortens the tail's lever arm, so stability drops, and the tail needs less down-force, so the stall speed falls.

ID 813185Report a problem

Your tally shows here once every question above has an answer.

Percent right here is not a SIFT score

The real result is a single number on a 20–80 scale, computed by a formula Army Personnel Testing does not publish. Use your percentage here to find weak subtests, not to predict a result. How the real number works: Army SIFT scores.

Keep practicing for the SIFT

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SIFT questions with the reasoning for every choice, in a study app (see both stores).

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Pages to read after this set

SIFT practice questions: what to expect

Why are there no Hidden Figures questions in this practice test?

Hidden Figures, Simple Drawings and Spatial Apperception are image tasks. Written versions of them train the wrong skill, so we explain the format and pacing on their own pages instead.

Is the math on the SIFT harder than ASVAB math?

The topics overlap with ASVAB Arithmetic Reasoning and Math Knowledge, and both tests adapt to your answers. On the SIFT they sit in a single timed Math Skills subtest, a few formulas are supplied, and finishing too few items is penalized.

How long is the SIFT reading test?

The subtest gives 30 minutes for 20 items, about 90 seconds each, in a fixed set where a blank counts as wrong. The FAQ does not give the number of passages; the other subtests are in the subtest table.