Questions in the style of the OAR's three subtests, filterable by subtest. Answer one and the reasoning opens under every choice, the wrong ones included.
50 OAR questions by subtest
0 of 50 answeredPick a letter: the reasoning for every choice opens under it.
Q1 of 50 · Math Skills Test (MST)
A convoy drives 2 hours at 45 mph and then 3 hours at 30 mph. How many miles does it travel in all?
375 miles adds the speeds (75 mph) and applies that to all 5 hours.
Distance = speed × time for each leg: 2 × 45 + 3 × 30 = 90 + 90 = 180 miles.
195 miles swaps the times (3 × 45 + 2 × 30).
187.5 miles applies the plain average speed (37.5 mph) to all 5 hours.
A logistics officer must move 1,450 kg of supplies in trucks that each carry up to 400 kg. Every truck except the last is loaded full. How many kilograms go on the last truck?
150 kg is the empty space left on the last truck (400 − 250).
362.5 kg spreads the load evenly over 4 trucks; the others are full.
290 kg spreads the load evenly over 5 trucks (1,450 ÷ 5).
Three full trucks carry 3 × 400 = 1,200 kg, leaving 1,450 − 1,200 = 250 kg for the last truck.
A convoy drove 240 miles in 6 hours. On the return trip over the same route, it must arrive in 2 hours less. What average speed does it need on the return trip?
42 mph adds 2 to the speed instead of cutting 2 hours.
40 mph is the speed of the first trip (240 ÷ 6).
The return trip must take 6 − 2 = 4 hours, so the speed is 240 ÷ 4 = 60 mph.
30 mph adds the 2 hours (240 ÷ 8) instead of taking them away.
A transport plane holds 2,700 gallons of fuel, burns 300 gallons per hour, and must land with a 300-gallon reserve. Flying at 250 mph, how far can it fly out and still return to base?
Usable fuel is 2,700 − 300 = 2,400 gallons, or 8 hours, which covers 2,000 miles: 1,000 out and 1,000 back.
1,125 miles forgets the 300-gallon reserve (9 hours ÷ 2 × 250).
2,250 miles forgets both the reserve and the return trip.
2,000 miles is the whole flight; the plane must also fly back.
A truck gets 15 miles per gallon when empty. Its mileage drops in proportion to the cargo weight, by 2 miles per gallon for each 1,000 pounds. What is its mileage when it carries 2,500 pounds?
12.5 mpg subtracts 2.5 instead of 2.5 × 2.
13 mpg subtracts a single drop of 2 mpg.
2,500 pounds is 2.5 thousands, so the drop is 2.5 × 2 = 5 mpg and the mileage is 15 − 5 = 10 mpg.
11 mpg counts only the 2 full thousands of pounds (a 4 mpg drop); the drop is proportional, so 2,500 pounds take off 5 mpg.
A convoy of 15 vehicles is evenly spaced. The distance from the first vehicle to the last is 280 meters. What is the distance between each pair of neighboring vehicles?
21.5 meters divides by 13, one gap too few.
18.7 meters divides by 15, one gap per vehicle; a line of 15 has 14 gaps.
Fifteen vehicles in a line have 14 gaps, so each gap is 280 ÷ 14 = 20 meters.
A shooter hit 42 of 50 targets in the first round. How many of the 50 targets in the second round must the shooter hit to finish with 90% hits overall?
45 is 90% of one round; it ignores the 3-hit shortfall from round one.
90 is the total number of hits needed over both rounds, not the second-round hits.
42 repeats the first-round score, which would leave the total at 84%.
90% of all 100 targets is 90 hits; with 42 already hit, the second round needs 90 − 42 = 48.
Two harbor lights flash together at midnight. One flashes every 12 seconds and the other every 18 seconds. How many seconds pass before they next flash together?
6 is the greatest common factor of 12 and 18, not a time when both flash.
They flash together again at the least common multiple of 12 and 18: 12 = 2² · 3, 18 = 2 · 3², LCM = 2² · 3² = 36.
30 adds the two intervals; 30 is not a multiple of 12.
24 is the second flash of the 12-second light, but 24 is not a multiple of 18.
G-induced loss of consciousness (G-LOC) occurs when excessive acceleration forces blood away from the brain. Modern fighter aircraft can generate sustained forces of 9G, well beyond the body's natural tolerance. Pilots employ the anti-G straining maneuver, tensing lower body muscles while performing controlled breathing to maintain blood flow to the brain. Additionally, anti-G suits automatically inflate around the legs and abdomen to further counteract G-forces. Despite these countermeasures, G-LOC remains a significant physiological threat.
Which statement can be inferred only from the passage?
The passage says the suit inflates automatically, not by hand.
The passage says G-LOC happens when acceleration forces blood away from the brain, not from low cockpit oxygen.
The passage calls 9G "well beyond the body's natural tolerance" and never says training lifts tolerance that high unaided.
The passage ends by saying G-LOC remains a threat "despite these countermeasures," so a pilot using both is not fully protected.
Aviation survival equipment provides critical life support following aircraft emergencies. Survival radios transmit distress signals on internationally monitored frequencies. Signal flares and sea dye markers enhance visual detection by search aircraft. Life rafts include basic medical supplies, water collection devices, and solar stills for extended survival at sea. Training emphasizes proper equipment usage and psychological aspects of survival situations, particularly when rescue operations may be delayed by weather or geographic isolation.
Which statement can be inferred only from the passage?
The passage says training covers both equipment use and psychology; it never claims survivors cannot use the gear.
The passage says flares and dye markers aid detection "by search aircraft."
The passage says the frequencies are "internationally monitored," not reserved for military forces.
Rafts carry water collection devices and solar stills "for extended survival at sea," which assumes survivors may have to produce drinking water themselves.
The naval aviation command structure integrates operational and administrative functions. Squadron Commanding Officers report to air wing commanders for operational matters while maintaining administrative connections to type commanders. Carrier air wing commanders coordinate with ship captains to integrate air operations into overall carrier mission requirements. This dual-chain structure balances specialized aviation expertise with the broader maritime mission. Clear delineation of authority prevents confusion during high-tempo operations where rapid decision-making is essential.
Which statement can be inferred only from the passage?
The passage says air wing commanders coordinate with ship captains; it never says the captain commands the air wing directly.
This swaps the two chains: operations go to the air wing commander, administration to the type commander.
The passage says squadron commanding officers report to air wing commanders for operations while keeping administrative ties to type commanders, so they can have two different superiors.
The passage says clear authority prevents confusion, but it gives no history of mishaps behind the structure.
Naval aviation safety programs emphasize reporting and analyzing near-miss incidents. These events, where accidents almost occurred but were prevented, provide valuable data without the tragedy of actual mishaps. The Aviation Safety Awareness Program encourages anonymous reporting of safety concerns without fear of reprisal. Trend analysis identifies systemic issues that might otherwise remain undetected until causing catastrophic outcomes. This proactive approach has significantly reduced mishap rates compared to reactive methods that focus primarily on accident investigation.
Which statement can be inferred only from the passage?
The passage says the program "encourages anonymous reporting of safety concerns," so people can report without giving their names.
The passage says reports are made "without fear of reprisal," which rules out using them to discipline crews.
The passage compares the proactive approach with reactive methods but never says accident investigation was abandoned.
The passage says trend analysis finds such issues before they cause a catastrophe, the reverse of this claim.
Air combat maneuvering incorporates energy management principles to achieve tactical advantage. Pilots continuously evaluate potential and kinetic energy states relative to adversary aircraft. Trading altitude for airspeed enables rapid offensive positioning, while vertical maneuvers preserve energy for subsequent engagements. Situational awareness encompasses not just the immediate adversary but the entire tactical environment, including supporting aircraft, threat systems, and environmental constraints. Successful tactics balance aggressive positioning against maintaining sufficient energy reserves for defensive options.
Which statement can be inferred only from the passage?
The passage says successful tactics "balance" aggression against energy reserves, so aggression does not come first.
The passage says "trading altitude for airspeed enables rapid offensive positioning," so a pilot can gain speed by giving up height.
The passage says pilots weigh potential and kinetic energy and the whole tactical situation, not airspeed alone.
The passage says vertical maneuvers "preserve energy for subsequent engagements," the opposite of wasting it.
Aviation fuel systems incorporate multiple safeguards to ensure uninterrupted engine operation. Boost pumps maintain positive pressure to prevent vapor lock at high altitudes. Cross-feed capabilities allow drawing fuel from any tank to any engine, providing redundancy if individual pumps fail. Automatic fuel management systems maintain aircraft center of gravity within limits as fuel is consumed. Filtration systems remove contaminants that could obstruct fuel nozzles or damage precision components. Modern systems include detectors for water contamination, a particular concern with turbine engines.
Which statement can be inferred only from the passage?
The passage says cross-feed lets any tank feed any engine as a backup if pumps fail; an empty tank is not the stated purpose.
The passage names water contamination as a concern for turbine engines but gives no cause tied to altitude.
Automatic fuel management keeps the center of gravity within limits as fuel is consumed, which only makes sense if the order of fuel use can move it.
The passage links vapor lock to high altitude and water detectors to turbine engines; it does not connect the two.
When the autopilot is engaged, one pilot shall be designated as the pilot flying and shall monitor the flight path at all times. The autopilot shall be disconnected whenever the aircraft deviates from its assigned altitude by more than 200 feet and the deviation cannot be corrected through the autopilot controls.
Which statement can be inferred only from the passage?
The passage requires disconnecting only when the deviation exceeds 200 feet and "cannot be corrected through the autopilot controls," so a correctable deviation does not call for it.
The passage sets no limit on climbs or descents; disconnecting is tied only to an uncorrectable altitude deviation.
This drops half of the rule: the deviation must also be impossible to correct with the autopilot controls.
The passage says one pilot is designated pilot flying and "shall monitor the flight path at all times," so monitoring continues.
Combat Search and Rescue (CSAR) operations extract downed aircrew from hostile territory. These missions involve complex coordination between multiple assets, including rescue helicopters, escort fighters, and electronic warfare support. Specialized Pararescue personnel deploy to provide immediate medical treatment and security. Communication procedures balance the need for contact with isolated personnel against the risk of enemy direction-finding. Recovery missions often occur during darkness to exploit reduced enemy detection capabilities, requiring night vision equipment and precise navigation. CSAR capability represents a critical morale factor for combat aircrews.
Which statement can be inferred only from the passage?
The passage says communications must balance the need for contact against "the risk of enemy direction-finding," so a transmission can reveal a location.
The passage says recoveries often take place in darkness to exploit reduced enemy detection.
The passage calls CSAR a morale factor but says nothing about why commanders accept its risks.
The passage says Pararescue personnel provide both medical treatment and security.
A wing produces lift because the air flowing over its curved upper surface speeds up and its pressure drops, while the wing also turns the passing airflow downward. A popular explanation claims that air over the top must travel a longer path in order to rejoin the air beneath it at the trailing edge. Wind-tunnel measurements show that this 'equal transit time' idea is false: the upper air actually reaches the trailing edge first. Lift grows with the square of airspeed, so doubling the airspeed produces about four times the lift at the same angle of attack.
Which statement can be inferred only from the passage?
The passage names two parts of the explanation: the pressure drop and the wing turning the airflow downward.
Wind-tunnel measurements, the passage says, show that "the upper air actually reaches the trailing edge first."
Lift grows with the square of airspeed, so doubling the speed gives about four times the lift, not twice.
This is the "equal transit time" explanation that the passage calls false.
Aircraft electrical systems provide power for essential equipment through multiple, redundant sources. The primary generator, driven by the engine, supplies most operational needs. Battery systems provide startup capability and emergency backup if primary generation fails. Essential buses power critical flight instruments and communication equipment, while secondary buses serve less critical systems that can be shed during emergencies. Modern aircraft incorporate load-shedding automation that prioritizes remaining power to essential systems when generation capacity is compromised, maintaining critical capabilities even during significant electrical malfunctions.
Which statement can be inferred only from the passage?
The passage says load shedding is done by automation, not by the pilot with a checklist.
The battery provides startup and emergency backup; the engine-driven generator supplies most needs after the start.
Flight instruments and radios are on the essential buses, the ones kept powered.
Secondary buses serve "less critical systems that can be shed during emergencies," so their equipment may be switched off to save power.
Unmanned aerial vehicles (UAVs) have transformed naval intelligence collection capabilities. These platforms provide persistent surveillance without risking pilot lives in hazardous environments. Small tactical UAVs operate from surface vessels, while larger systems launch from shore bases to cover vast maritime regions. Advanced sensors include electro-optical, infrared, and radar systems that function regardless of light conditions or cloud cover. Encrypted data links transmit intelligence to command centers in real-time, enabling immediate operational decisions based on current information. Integration with manned aircraft creates complementary capabilities that enhance overall mission effectiveness.
Which statement can be inferred only from the passage?
This reverses the basing: small tactical UAVs operate from ships, larger systems from shore.
The passage says data links send intelligence to command centers "in real-time," not after landing.
The passage says UAV sensors "function regardless of light conditions or cloud cover."
The passage says UAVs work with manned aircraft to create complementary capabilities; they have not taken over.
Night vision technology has revolutionized nocturnal flight operations. Night Vision Goggles (NVGs) amplify available light from stars, moon, and cultural sources to provide visual capability in otherwise prohibitive darkness. These systems enable formation flight, terrain following, and target identification without betraying position through artificial illumination. However, NVGs introduce limitations including reduced field of view, degraded depth perception, and potential for spatial disorientation. Pilots must complete extensive training to safely operate with these systems and understand their capabilities and constraints in various environmental conditions.
Which statement can be inferred only from the passage?
The passage lists degraded depth perception and a risk of disorientation among NVG limitations.
The passage says NVGs amplify existing light from stars, moon, and cultural sources; they do not create their own.
The passage says NVGs allow target identification "without betraying position through artificial illumination."
The passage requires extensive NVG training but says nothing about a qualification per aircraft type.
Cockpit resource management (CRM) evolved from accident investigations that revealed breakdowns in flight crew communication and coordination. This approach emphasizes effective information sharing, assertive communication, and cooperative decision-making among all crewmembers. While the pilot-in-command maintains ultimate authority, CRM encourages input from all personnel to enhance situational awareness and identify potential threats. These principles apply equally to single-pilot and multi-crew aircraft, though specific implementation techniques may differ.
Which statement can be inferred only from the passage?
The passage says the principles apply "equally to single-pilot and multi-crew aircraft."
The passage says CRM encourages input from all personnel "while the pilot-in-command maintains ultimate authority."
Authority is not shared equally: the pilot-in-command keeps final authority.
The passage says investigations revealed breakdowns in communication and coordination; it does not blame most crashes on poor training.
Aviation charts incorporate multiple symbols to convey critical information efficiently. Obstacles are marked with their height above ground level and mean sea level. Restricted airspace appears as blue hatched areas with defining altitudes and operating hours. Radio navigation aids display frequency information and identifying characteristics. Pilots must regularly review chart legends to maintain familiarity with these standardized symbols, particularly as charting agencies periodically update conventions to accommodate new information requirements.
Which statement can be inferred only from the passage?
Pilots must review legends because agencies "periodically update conventions," so a pilot who has not checked lately may misread a changed symbol.
The passage says obstacles are marked with height above ground level and above mean sea level.
The passage says restricted airspace is shown as blue hatched areas, not red.
The passage says agencies "periodically update conventions," so the symbols do change.
Aircraft icing conditions develop when liquid water droplets in clouds impact surfaces at temperatures near or below freezing. Structural icing adheres to external surfaces, disrupting airflow and increasing weight. Induction icing affects engine air intake components, potentially reducing power. Instrument icing can block pitot and static ports, causing erroneous readings from critical flight instruments. Each form presents unique hazards requiring specific recognition cues and mitigation strategies. Even aircraft certified for flight into known icing conditions have operational limitations in severe icing encounters.
Which statement can be inferred only from the passage?
The passage gives blocked pitot and static ports to instrument icing; structural icing adds weight and disrupts airflow.
The passage says icing develops at temperatures "near or below freezing," so near-freezing air is not safe.
The passage says known-icing approval allows deliberate flight into icing; it never makes the approval a condition for flying in cloud.
The last sentence says even aircraft certified for known icing "have operational limitations in severe icing encounters."
A cast-iron bracket snaps suddenly without bending, while a mild-steel bracket of the same shape bends before it breaks. The cast iron is best described as
A brittle material breaks suddenly with little or no bending, like cast iron.
Ductile describes the mild steel, which bends and stretches before breaking.
Elastic means it springs back after loading, which says nothing about how it fails.
A worker pushes a heavy crate across a level floor. Compared with the force needed to keep it sliding at a steady speed, the force needed to start it moving is usually ____.
The two coefficients differ for most surfaces.
Starting usually needs more force, not less.
Static friction (to start motion) is usually greater than kinetic friction (to keep it moving).
Three containers are filled with water to the same depth: a narrow tube, a wide tank, and a tank that flares out toward the top. How does the water pressure at the bottom compare?
Pressure at a given depth depends only on that depth and the liquid's density, so it is equal in all of them whatever their shape.
A narrow tube changes nothing; the depth is the same.
A wide tank holds more water, but the extra weight rests on a larger floor area.
You hold a weight in your hand with your forearm level. The biceps muscle attaches to the forearm just a short way from the elbow joint. How does the biceps force compare with the weight?
This would be true only if the muscle attached far from the elbow.
The forearm is a lever with the elbow as pivot; the biceps' short arm means it must pull much harder than the weight.
Equal forces would need equal lever arms, but the weight is much farther from the elbow.
A sealed foil helium balloon, which cannot stretch, is released and rises. Why does it eventually stop rising?
Buoyancy equals the weight of air displaced; higher up the air is thinner, so the rigid balloon displaces less weight of air until lift equals its weight.
Gravity actually weakens very slightly with height; that cannot stop the rise.
The sealed, rigid balloon keeps the same helium in the same volume, so its density does not change.
Your tally shows here once every question above has an answer.
The reading part of the OAR
The Reading Comprehension Test has no page of its own here, so its notes sit beside its questions. Each item gives a passage and asks which statement it supports. NAMI's rule for the subtest: the right choice can be drawn from the passage alone, and a statement that holds in the world but is missing from the text is a distractor.
The usual ways a wrong choice tempts you:
it widens the scope, turning "some units" into "the Navy";
it swaps who did what, keeping the names but changing the roles;
it adds a word like always or never that the passage does not support.
Passage reading as a skill is covered on Paragraph Comprehension; this set adds the OAR format.
How this set differs from the OAR itself
Mix. NAMI publishes no subtest weights. Math has the largest share here because it spans the most topics; that split is our choice.
Order. This page lets you jump around. The OAR does not: its subtests are adaptive, and an unfinished one costs you.
Mechanical choices. Every mechanical item here has three choices, as the real MCT does.
Calculator. The real test has no calculator; the formulas you need are given and scratch paper is provided, so work these the same way.
OAR→The Navy officer test: three ASTB-E subtests, one 20–80 score
OAR exam facts→Length, adaptive format, retakes and how the OAR differs from the ASVAB
OAR scores→The 20–80 scale and Navy program minimums with document dates
OAR study guide→A plan for MST, RCT and MCT, their traps, and what to check before buying a prep book
OAR practice: what people ask
Does the Navy put out printable OAR sample items?
NAMI publishes sample questions for the ASTB, dated 2014; the math, reading and mechanical sections are the OAR part. Its descriptions of retired forms do not apply.
Will these items feel like OAR test day?
Close in topic and style, not in delivery. The real subtests adapt to your answers and do not let you skip, so finish this set in order once before test day.